Originally posted by: hypnotoad
So is the nikah still valid even if she didn't observe iddah of 3 months (but only1 month)? I know there is no iddah if the divorce happened before marriage was consummated. But if marriage is consummated, is observing the 3-month iddah mandatory?
No it is not valid. She has to complete the iddah period if the marriage is consummated.
Hanafi fiqh says it’s mandatory to observe iddah even if marriage is not consummated but the couple has been in seclusion.